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Or maybe you might call it an economics question....
or a logic question...
or, perhaps just an example of the difference between men and women thought processes...
at any rate, I went shopping today at an outlet mall (because the prices are soooo much better than the regular mall) and found some coffee cups at the 'Big Dog' store. Pretty cool cups with catchy phrases on them. Anyway, I didn't notice the sign that said "buy on get one half off" until after I'd found what I wanted. I bought the cups I wanted- not because they were on sale, but because I wanted them. When we got to the register, the girl behind the register said "you know these are buy one get one half off." My wife acknowledged her. Anyway, in the little world inside my head, I thought that if I were to buy one and the second one was half off, then logically, I should get the third one free if I buy 2. Right? Apparently, it doesn't work that way. Even explaining it to the girl didn't help. I said, "I bought this one and get half off the second one. I bought the third one and get the other half off the second one," pointing at each as I explained. Again, my logic is flawed. Apparently, I could have gotten a fourth cup at half price had I wanted one. It didn't really matter, I would have bought them had they not been on sale, but I am still at a loss as to why it didn't work out the way I thought it should have. My wife said I was being a jerk, but I didn't feel that I was. I told her I was going to conduct a poll and ask five guys and five girls how the transaction should have worked and I bet the guys would all see it my way. So, what do you all think???
They are counting on the revenue from half of the second cup. In that deal you pay 75% of the original cost. If the cups are $5 each you will pay 7.50 if you buy one and get one for 1/2 off. $15 if you buy 4 cups total.
If they took your offer of buy 2 get one free they would only get $10 for 3 cups, or 66% of the original price. Your method increases the percent off in the sale and decreases their revenue per cup. That's why it doesn't fit in with the intent of the sale.
Think of it as you have to buy a cup and a half to get a free half cup.
1 vote for guy siding with wife and store clerk, sorry.
My point is that I bought a cup. Therefore I got one at half price. I bought a second cup at full price. I felt that I should be able to apply the discount on the second (full price) cup to the original discounted cup. Like I said, though, I liked the cups. Big 30 oz cups. Mine says, "I'm just one great big freakin ray of sunshine!" I was prepared to buy it for $10 and leave, but the issue of the missing half-off came up during the transaction. fuzzy math, plain and simple...
who cares after a 12 pk. payed for 6, got 6 free, your still drunk and the wife will have all your money when you wake up in the AM. no matter how it works, you're still broke
If they were on sale buy one get the second half off the register should have taken care of it automagically. There should have been no confusion...... If you paid full price for both I'd go back with the receipt and demand my $5 back.
Here's one thing to think about...The girl working the register probably doesn't have the power to give you the deal you wanted. She's just doing what she's told.
Oh, and I chose the second option, just because I wanted to call you a dummy...
Say the cups are $12. Buy one get one half off means you spend $18 and get two cups, or $9 per cup. Buy another one, and you have spent $30, but you now have an option on another cup for $6, plus you have 3 cups for $30, or $10 per cup, still less than original price. If you exercise the option, then you're up to $36 for 4 cups, or back to the maximum sale of $9 per cup. Two cups and get the third free would mean you want to spend $24 for 3 cups, or $8 per cup, less than their best deal.
Where your logic is flawed is that you have left out the fact that the purchase of one cup gets you the option to buy another for less in the future, not a cash rebate that you can apply to a previous purchase.